The Bible has been wrongly misused for years by the morally conservative groups as a way to back up their personal beliefs and prejudices. I am taking a 'New Testament as Literature' course, which occurs right after this Apocalypse Theory class. For some reason, all of my classes on Friday migrated to the subject of gay rights, civil rights, inclusion and exclusion of the Other, and "Queer Theory" (in our class). As this is only a 'small apocalypse' post, I will focus on what happened in Religion class, but "Queer Theory" can expect a long response later.
Our professor, Sister Terri, was pointing out a passage in 1 Corinthians in which Paul mentions the immorality of an older man having sex with a young boy. A man having sex with a boy should be labeled as pedophilia, and not as homosexuality. Pedophilia is a psychologically driven desire/fetish, and is not related to homosexuality. Sister Terri also brought up the fact that there was a recent survey conducted in which it was found that heterosexual men more commonly engage in sexual acts with boys than do homosexual men.
As the Bible was translated from Greek scriptures, a lot of the true meanings of words are lost in English, or are mistakenly related to our modern day culture, as opposed to being related to the culture in Roman antiquity in which these scriptures were written. In Roman culture at the time, it was very common for men and young boys to be physically involved with one another, and it was considered as the norm. This is obviously not true today, as children do not ask for that kind of attention nor do they welcome it, as they may have back then. In both situations the boy is taken advantage of, but there are definite cultural differences.
Modern translations of the Bible all differ, depending on the version, and as the class read their different translations, the word 'homosexual' appeared a number of times, along with the phrase 'sexual perverts'. Sister Terri is a Biblical scholar, and so we asked her, "what did Paul really mean when he was writing these passages?" She explained that the Greek could be translated into meaning that it is immoral for a man to be with a 'soft' boy, or one that hasn't hit puberty yet. Only recently have scholars been able to put the translations into a relevant context. Also, Paul writes about how the man should always be the one in the position of dominance during sexual intercourse. That's it, though. No mention of anti-homosexual behavior here. (On a side note, Paul frequently includes women in high positions in the Church such as Deacons in his Gospels).
It made me happy to hear that there are reasonable minds in the church today, and that new translations will surface which will transform religion into more of an enlightening tool rather than a hateful one. I was also extremely bothered by this realization, because over the years the church's followers have been one of the largest groups against homosexuality, same-sex marriages, and other basic human rights. They have no right to use the Bible in that way, and won't they feel stupid when they realize that it never said any of what they've been falsely preaching. Sister Terri told us that there are about four references in the Bible which have been translated to include homosexual behavior, but none of these passages actually refer to homosexuality as immoral, or even to homosexuality at all. Instead, these passages refer to different cultural practices , or different Greek words which have been falsely interpreted, much like the example given above.
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Homosexuality did not exist before 1869 when Karl-Maria Kertbeny disclosed it. It is highly indebted to Karl Heinrich Ulrichs' Uranian (a male or female who's psyche trapped in the wrong body and thus desires the same sex).
ReplyDeleteWhen you say "the overly conservative"—I'm not sure what you mean. This seems like a squishy and rather imprecise label. It is a little disturbing that we now have to say "overly conservative"—as if 'conservative' is a given, the 'standard' now, or something. Why don't you simply mean 'conservative'? I think you'd be able to make a historical case for this, as long as you qualify it as 'morally' (as opposed to 'fiscally') conservative. We have to be careful how we designate political bents, because they are often more nuanced and complex than they might at first appear. (And attaching "overly" to any word often does little more than obfuscate what is trying to be drawn attention to.)
ReplyDeleteThis post relates very much to Gayle Rubin's "Thinking Sex" in important ways, and I would highly recommend rereading Rubin's text with your New Testament example in mind. In many ways, it sounds like your religion professor is making similar points that Rubin makes throughout "Thinking Sex."
Be careful with phrasings such as this: "I think everyone in our class (but unfortunately not always in our culture) would agree..." You've done two things here: you've potentially alienated readers who *don't* agree with this statement, and you've also set up a schema of cultural priority (fortunate us/unfortunate others). This ends up sounding incredibly morally conservative, and I know that this is not what you are driving at—you are clearly more sensitive to how we conceive of 'otherness' than this phrasing makes it sound. Do you see what I mean here?
At the end of your post, you say "Rather disappointing."—but to what are you referring? Please use complete sentences and explain exactly what is disappointing to you in the contents of your post. There is very much rich material in your post, and you don't want it to get lost through a dismissive gesture at the end.
Thank you for the edit, I think I was riled up because the whole day had been spent talking about certain injustices. I changed/removed some phrases.
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